Class 10 social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set C

Please refer to Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set C below. These Class 10 Social Science Sample Papers will help you to get more understanding of the type of questions expected in the upcoming exams. All sample guess papers for Social Science Class 10 have been designed as per the latest examination pattern issued by CBSE. Please practice all Term 1 CBSE Sample Papers for Social Science in Standard 10.

Sample Paper Term 1 Class 10 Social Science With Solutions Set C

Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)

1. Which of the following is a correct definition of custom barrier?
(a) It is a measure of limiting trade across borders of different cities and principalities.
(b) It is a physical barrier between two cities.
(c) It is a tax collected at railway stations to boost exports.
(d) Custom duties decreased the price of products.

2. Why 1830’s was of great economic hardship in Europe? Identify the correct option from the following.
(a) Industrial Revolution had created less economic opportunities than expected.
(b) Workers were on the strike hence industries were closed.
(c) Population had risen exponentially and job opportunities were less.
(d) Aristocratic class had snatched the jobs of the workers.

3. Who founded the revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’?
(a) Wilson
(b) Tsar Alexander II
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Duke Metternich

4. Which of the following was not a condition of Italy before unification?
(a) Political fragmentation
(b) Italy was divided into seven states.
(c) Italy was dominated by UK in 1801.
(d) Italians were scattered over several dynastic rulers.

5. What did the women do to extend their political rights? Identify from the given options.
(a) They had formed their own political association.
(b) They had taken part in political meetings and demonstrations.
(c) They had published newspapers.
(d) All of the above

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in.
(a) Rubber- Assam
(b) Pulses- Uttar Pradesh
(c) Jowar- Punjab
(d) Rice- West Bengal

7. The First International Earth Summit adopted Agenda 21 to ………… .
Choose the correct option.
(a) Conserve resources
(b) Support human activities
(c) Achieve sustainable development
(d) Meet future requirements

8. Which of the following statement is correct about Subsistence Farming?
(a) Farmers use mechanised tools and machines.
(b) Farmers use high doses of biochemical inputs.
(c) Farmers use chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
(d) Farmers use simple and basic tools and irrigation methods.

9. Why in states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year?
(a) These states receive heavy rainfall.
(b) These states have suitable climate for the growth of paddy.
(c) The consumption rate is very high in these states.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

10. Which is the most important plantation crop grown in Karnataka?
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Banana

11. Why did the Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles in Sri Lanka? Identify the correct option.
(a) For the recognition of Tamil as an official language.
(b) For regional autonomy.
(c) For equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs.
(d) All of the above

12. In what sense Federations are contrasted with unitary form of government? Identify the correct option.
(a) Powers in the federations are not concentrated in single hands but distributed among the units.
(b) In a federation, the central government can pass orders to the provincial or local government in an effective manner as compared to Unitary government.
(c) In a federation, state governments are answerable to the central government for every decision.
(d) In a federation, state government powers are in the hands of central government.

13. Power can be shared in modern democracies among which of the following bodies?
(a) Different organs of the government
(b) Governments at different levels
(c) Different social groups
(d) All of these

14. Who presides over the meetings of Municipal Corporations?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Mayor
(c) Deputy Mayor
(d) Governor

15. Which of the following institutions has been created in each state to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections?
(a) State Election Commission
(b) Local Election Commission
(c) Regional Election Commission
(d) Town Area Committee

16. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the Panchayat Samiti in India?
(a) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is an advisory body.
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is an administrative body.
(c) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is a consultant committee.
(d) Panchayat Samiti at the block level is a coordinating and supervisory authority.

17. How many countries in the world have adopted Federal Political System? Identify the correct option.
(a) 23
(b) 25
(c) 33
(d) 45

18. Which of the following is a solution to prevent groundwater overuse?
(a) Use river water for domestic usage
(b) Rainwater harvesting
(c) No usage of groundwater
(d) All of these

19. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Horticulture crops?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Japan

20. Basic services like health, education and infrastructure usually comes under public sector. The reason is …………… .
(a) It need better management
(b) It require timely updation
(c) It require equal and quality distribution
(d) These are profit earning areas

21. Which of the following measures were taken by the Government under Comprehensive land development programme?
(a) Institutional and Technical Reforms
(b) Crop Insurance against drought, flood, etc.
(c) Establishment of Grameen Banks and Cooperative Societies.
(d) All of the above

22. Barley, peas, gram, wheat and mustard are examples of which of the following cropping season?
(a) Kharif season
(b) Zaid Season
(c) Rabi season
(d) All of these

23. Which sector of activities can be the most commonly found in semi-rural areas?
(a) Tertiary sector
(b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Both (a) and (b)

24. How much percentage of forest area is desired in a geographical area to maintain ecological balance as outlined in the National Forest Policy?
(a) 25%
(b) 33%
(c) 35%
(d) 45%

Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. Following image represents the Republic of France and became popular in 1850. Identify the given image by choosing the correct option.

(a) Caricature of Otto van Bismarck
(b) Picture of Germania
(c) Postage Stamp with a picture of Marianne
(d) A poster of Marianne

26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct regarding the various developments which happened in the wake of the fleeing of Louis Philippe in the year 1848?
(i) National Assembly was proclaimed a republic.
(ii) National Workshops were set-up to provide employment.
(iii) Suffrage to all women.
(iv) Right to work was guaranteed
Options
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

27. Which of the following terms best describes the situation when an abstract idea like greed or envy is expressed through a person or a thing?
(a) Suffrage
(b) Allegory
(c) Alliance
(d) Treaty

28. Which of the following powers was not interested in Balkan region? Identify from the given options.
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) Russia

29. Identify the crop with the help of given clues.
• These crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June.
• Examples of these crops include wheat, barley, etc.
(a) Rabi crops
(b) Kharif crops
(c) Zaid crops
(d) Cash crops

30. Why paddy has recently become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana? Identify the reason from the given options.
(a) Farm sizes in these states are typically large.
(b) These states have extensive irrigation facilities.
(c) These states practice farming based on scientific methods.
(d) All of the above

31. Consider the following statements with respect to Residuary subjects and select the answer using the codes given below.
(i) It includes subjects of national importance.
(ii) These subjects came up after the Constitution came into effect.
(iii) Only Union Government has the power to legislate on these subjects.
Options
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of these

32. How Panchayati Raj establishes true democracy?
(a) It restores power to the only place where power belongs in a democracy in the hands of the people.
(b) Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency.
(c) It helps to make country corruption free.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism.
Reason (R) The spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became a shared ideal in our country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

34. Which among the following was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union?
(a) London
(b) Brussels
(c) Zurich
(d) Frankfurt

35. Match the following items given in Column (A) with those in Column (B).

(a) A → 3, B → 4, C → 2, D → 1
(b) A → 2, B → 1, C → 3, D → 4
(c) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1
(d) A → 2, B → 4, C → 1, D → 3

36. Which of the following reasons of Power sharing stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes? Identify the correct option:
(a) Moral
(b) Prudential
(c) Legitimate
(d) Political

37. Which of the following statement/s is correct pertaining to the tenure of Panchayat?
(i) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of its first meeting.
(ii) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of declaration of election results.
(iii) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of taking oath of office by the elected members.
(iv) The tenure of Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat.
Options
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iv)

38. Which of the following states violently demanded the use of English language for official purpose? Identify from the given options.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh

39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) A state has a per capita income of ₹ 2,25,000 per annum. The infant mortality rate in the state is 62%. So, the state can’t be considered a developed state.
Reason (R) There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their children to the hospital on time.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

40. Find the incorrect pair from the given lists.

41. Read the data given in the following table and answer the given question.

Which country has more equitable distribution of income?
(a) Country A
(b) Country B
(c) Country C
(d) Both Country A and Country B

42. Raman’s weight is 79kgs and his height is 1.54 meters. In which category can we place him from the following options?
(a) Underweight
(b) Normal weight
(c) Overweight
(d) Obesity

43. Which among the following options is called as intermediate goods?
(a) Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers.
(b) Goods and services that intermediately reach to the consumers.
(c) Goods that are used in the production of final goods and services.
(d) Goods that are used initially to produce a material.

44. Which of the following is correct option for classification on the basis of nature of activity?
(a) Organised and Unorganised sector.
(b) Primary sector, Secondary sector and Tertiary sector
(c) Public and Private sector
(d) Agriculture and Industrial sector

45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R) Resources are essential for human development.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

46. Aman is employed on a corn farm where he does not have much manual work. He solely works on the farm every day of which type of employment is this an example?
(a) Disguised Employment
(b) Seasonal Employment
(c) Over Employment
(d) Cyclical Employment

Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of various government departments of all the Indian States and Union Territories, collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDP.

47. Which of the following is considered essential for calculating Gross Domestic Product of a country? Identify the correct option.
(a) Value of all goods and service
(b) Value of final goods and intermediate service
(c) Value of final goods and service
(d) Value of intermediate goods and final service

48. When people from villages come to urban areas in search of work then there is ……… .
(a) shift from secondary to service sector
(b) shift primary to secondary sector
(c) shift from primary to tertiary sector
(d) Both (b) and (c)

49. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Rakesh is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly salary as he is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason (R) All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual is engaged in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

50. Which of the following should be added to find out the GDP of a country?
(a) Buying of flour to make biscuits
(b) Sale of jute to jute mills
(c) Payment made to doctor
(d) All of these

51. The value of which work is added in the calculation of GDP?
(a) Housewives’ works
(b) A teacher teaching his own child
(c) The value of resale of old shares
(d) Construction of new house by an artisan

52. The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by which of the following level of government?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Local Government
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.

It was among the educated, liberal middle classes that ideas of national unity following the abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity.

Ideas of national unity in early-19th century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through Parliament. Nineteenth century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Yet, equality before the law did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. You will recall that in revolutionary France, which marked the first political experiment in liberal democracy, the right to vote and to get elected was granted exclusively to property-owning men.

53. Which of the following does not stand for liberalism?
(a) Equality before the law
(b) Government by consent
(c) Freedomof the Individual
(d) The citizen should not have right to property

54. Which country is considered as the pioneer of liberal democracy?
(a) Italy
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) Poland

55. Which of the following is true with respect to the 19th century spirit of nationalism?
(a) Universal suffrage
(b) End of autocracy
(c) Right to vote to all sections of the society
(d) Both (a) and (b)

56. Which of the following feature of liberalism is not true as per the French Revolution?
(a) Representative government
(b) End of clerical privileges
(c) Unified economy
(d) End of autocracy

57. Which was a major result of the French Revolution? Identify from the given options.
(i) The king was restored to unlimited power.
(ii) The clergy dominated government.
(iii) The middle class gained political influence.
(iv) The tax burden was carried by the lower classes.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Both (iii) (iv)

58. What does liberalism stand in the economic sphere? Select the best suitable option with reference to the above context.
(a) Freedom of markets
(b) Control over markets
(c) Heavily taking goods sold in the markets
(d) Imposition of restrictions on the movement of goods across territories

Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-60) On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

59. In the given map a region/area has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the dam located in the region and choose the correct option.
(a) Rana Pratap Sagar dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Tungabhadra dam
(d) Hirakund dam

60. In the given map a crop growing region/area has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Rubber
(d) Sugarcane