Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set C

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Please refer to Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set C below. These Class 12 Chemistry Sample Papers will help you to get more understanding of the type of questions expected in the upcoming exams. All sample guess papers for Chemistry Class 12 have been designed as per the latest examination pattern issued by CBSE. Please practice all Term 1 CBSE Sample Papers for Chemistry in Standard 12.

Sample Paper Term 1 Class 12 Chemistry With Solutions Set C

Section ‘A’

Q. 1. The sharp melting point of crystalline solids is due to ___________.
(A) a regular arrangement of constituent particles observed over a short distance in the crystal lattice.
(B) a regular arrangement of constituent particles observed over a long distance in the crystal lattice.
(C) same arrangement of constituent particles in different directions.
(D) different arrangements of constituent particles in different directions.

Answer

B

Q. 2. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?
(A) B2H6
(B) C2H6
(C) PH3
(D) SiH4

Answer

A

Q. 3. For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that
(A) The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute.
(B) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute.
(C) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution.
(D) The vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute.

Answer

B

Q. 4. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows:
(A) SN1 mechanism
(B) SN2 mechanism
(C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
(D) Saytzeff rule

Answer

A

Q. 5. In graphite, electrons are :
(A) Localised on each C-atom
(B) Localised on every third C-atom
(C) Spread out between the structure
(D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer

D

Q. 6. In which of the following structures coordination number for cations and anions in the packed structure will be same?
(A) Cl ion form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all octahedral voids of the unit cell.
(B) Ca2+ ions form fcc lattice and F ions occupy all the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell.
(C) O2– ions form fcc lattice and Na+ ions occupy all the eight tetrahedral voids of the unit cell.
(D) S2– ions form fcc lattice and Zn2+ ions go into alternate tetrahedral voids of the unit cell.

Answer

A

Q. 7. Which of the following compounds has a 3-centre bond?
(A) Diborane
(B) CO2
(C) Boron trifluoride
(D) Ammonia

Answer

A

Q. 8. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double bond containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as:
(A) Saytzeffs rule.
(B) Peroxide rule.
(C) Markovnikov’s rule.
(D) Van’t hoff rule

Answer

C

Q. 9. Which of the following statements about the zeolites is false?
(A) They are used as cation exchangers
(B) They have open structure which enables them to take up small molecules
(C) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having three dimensional network
(D) Some of the SiO44– units are replaced by AlO45– and AlO69– ions in zeolites.

Answer

D

Q. 10. What is A in the following reaction?

Answer

B

Q. 11. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3.
Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
(A) Cl
(B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4]

Answer

B

Q. 12. The anomalous property of nitrogen is due to:
(A) its small size.
(B) high electronegativity
(C) non availability of d-orbitals
(D) low electro negativity

Answer

B

Q. 13. A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp lattice and atoms of M occupy two atoms an Mercury 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound
(A) MN2
(B) M2N3
(C) M3N2
(D) M2N2

Answer

B

Q. 14. Which is the correct option for halogenation of alkanes :
(A) a reductive process
(B) an isothermal process
(C) an endothermal process
(D) an oxidative process

Answer

D

(A) RCH2CH2OH
(B) RCHOHCH3
(C) RCHOHR

Answer

A

Q. 16. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are :
(A) epimers
(B) anomers
(C) enantiomers
(D) diastereomers

Answer

B

Q. 17. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields.
(A) o-Cresol
(B) m-Cresol
(C) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
(D) Benzyl alcohol

Answer

D

Q. 18. If 8g of a non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 114 g of n-octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%, the molar mass (in g mol–1) of the solute is [Given that molar mass of n-octane is 114 g mol–1]
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20

Answer

A

Q. 19. The molality of pure water is:
(A) 55.5
(B) 50.5
(C) 18
(D) 60.5

Answer

A

Q. 20. What is Z ? in the given reaction

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(C) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(D) CH3CH2CH2CH3

Answer

A

Q. 21. What is the product formed when phenol is oxidized by Na2Cr2O7 / H2SO4?
(A) Benzoic acid
(B) Benzaldehyde
(C) Benzoquinone
(D) Picric acid

Answer

C

Q. 22. Which one of the following compounds shows both, Frenkel as well as Schottky defects ?
(A) AgBr
(B) AgI
(C) NaCl
(D) ZnS

Answer

A

Q. 23. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves .
(A) addition reaction
(B) substitution reaction
(C) dehydrohalogenation reaction
(D) rearrangement reaction

Answer

B

Q. 24. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
(A) Neutral FeCl3
(B) Aqueous NaOH
(C) Tollen’s reagent
(D) Molisch reagent

Answer

A

Section ‘B’

Q. 25. When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene (vapour pressure of benzene =12.8 kPa, Toluene = 3.85 kPa).
(A) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene.
(B) Not enough information is given for prediction.
(C) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(D) The vapour will contain higher percentage of toluene.

Answer

C

Q. 26. Phenol is less acidic than what of the below:
(A) ethanol
(B) o-nitrophenol
(C) o-methylphenol
(D) o-methoxyphenol

Answer

B

Q. 27. Find the molality of glucose solution:
(A) 0.3 mol/kg
(B) 250 mol/kg
(C) 1000 mol/kg
(D) 1.333 mol/kg

Answer

D

Q. 28. What is the freezing point of pure water?
(A) 100°C
(B) 0°C
(C) 273 K
(D) 0 K

Answer

B

Q. 29. Choose the correct value for the depression of freezing point of glucose solution?
(A) 2.48°C
(B) – 2.48°C
(C) 0°C
(D) 1.86 K

Answer

B

Q. 30. According to Raoult’s Law, the relative lowering in vapour pressure of a dilute solution is equal to the :
(A) molality of solute
(B) mole fraction of the solute present in the solution
(C) number of solutes present
(D) boiling point of solute.

Answer

B

Q. 31. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because
(A) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
(B) HI is of violet colour
(C) HI gets oxidised to I2
(D) HI changes to HIO3

Answer

C

Q. 32. A substance AxBy crystallizes in a face centred cubic (FCC) lattice in which atom ‘A’ occupy each corner of the cube and atoms ‘B’ occupy the centres of each face of the cube. Identify the correct composition of the substance AxBy.
(A) AB3
(B) A4B3
(C) A3B
(D) A5B4

Answer

A

Q. 33. Which of the following is most acidic?
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Cyclohexanol
(C) Phenol
(D) m-Chlorophenol

Answer

D

Q. 34. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is
(A) electrophilic elimination reaction
(B) electrophilic substitution reaction
(C) free radical addition reaction
(D) nucleophilic substitution reaction

Answer

B

Q. 35. In qualitative analysis when H2S is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil.
HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3 , it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives _________.
(A) Deep blue precipitate of Cu(OH)2
(B) Deep blue solution of [Cu (NH3)4]2+
(C) Deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2
(D) Deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2.Cu(NO3)2

Answer

B

Q. 36. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide then :
(A) Freezing point is raised
(B) Freezing point is lowered
(C) Freezing point does not change
(D) Boiling point does not change

Answer

A

Q. 37. Which of the following elements can be involved in pp – dp bonding?
(A) Carbon
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Boron

Answer

C

Q.38. Which of the following will have metal deficiency defect?
(A) NaCl
(B) FeO
(C) KCl
(D) ZnO

Answer

B

Q. 39. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(A) HF
(B) HCl
(C) HBr
(D) HI

Answer

A

Q. 40. Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water?
(A) C6H5OH
(B) C6H5CH2OH
(C) (CH3)3COH
(D) C2H5OH

Answer

A

Q. 41. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?

(A) 1° > 2° > 3°
(B) 1° < 2° > 3°
(C) 3° > 2° > 1°
(D) 3° > 1° > 2°

Answer

C

Q. 42. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2 , white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
(A) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(B) It’s solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.
(C) It is more basic than NH3.
(D) It is less basic than NH3.

Answer

C

Q. 43. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer

A

Q. 44. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction?
(A) Cl2/UV light
(B) NaCl + H2SO4
(C) Cl2 gas in dark
(D) Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark

Answer

A

From Q.45 to Q.49, Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and at the end of each question give the following line select the most appropriate answers from the options given below :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

Q. 45. Assertion : XeF6 reacts with small quantity of water to form XeOF4.
Reason : XeF6 reacts with glass and form XeOF4 .

Answer

B

Q. 46. Assertion (A) : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason (R) : Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.

Answer

B

Q. 47. Assertion : The elements of group 18 are called inert gas.
Reason : The elements of group 18 are monoatomic in nature.

Answer

A

Q. 48. Assertion : Noble gases are chemically inert.
Reason : All noble gases have ns2np6 valence shell electronic configuration.

Answer

A

Q. 49. Assertion : Molecular mass of polymers cannot be calculated using boiling point or freezing point methods.
Reason : Polymer’s solution does not possess a constant boiling point or freezing point. A

Answer

B

Section ‘C’

Q. 50. Identify the set of reagent/reaction conditions ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following set of transformations:

(A) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C, Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C
(B) X = concentrated alcoholic, NaOH, 20°C, Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C
(C) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20°C, Y = Br2/CHCl3, 0°C
(D) X = concentrated alcoholic, NaOH, 80°C, Y = Br2/CHCl3, 0°C

Answer

B

Q. 51. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(A) Low oxidation state of phosphorus
(B) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H
(C) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds
(D) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus

Answer

C

Q. 52. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?
(A) Al
(B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4]

Answer

B

Case-1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow 53-55:
The adjective, ‘crystalline’ when applied to solids, implies an ideal crystal in which the structural units, termed as unit cells, are repeated regularly and indefinitely in three dimensions in space. The unit cell, containing at least one molecule has definite orientation and shape defined by the translational vectors, a, b and c. The unit cell therefore has a definite volume, V that contains the atoms and molecules necessary for generating the crystal. Every crystal can be classified as a member of one of the seven possible crystal systems or crystal classes that are defined by the relationship between the individual dimensions, a, b and c of the unit cell and between the individual angles, α, β, and γ of the unit cell. The structure of the given crystal may be assigned to one of the 7 crystal systems, to one of the 14 Brevais lattices, and to one of the 230 space groups. This uniquely define the possible ways of rearranging atoms in a three-dimensional solid, Based on these observations, seven crystal systems were identified: triclinic, monoclinic, trigonal or rhombohedral, tetragonal, hexagonal, rhombic or orthorhombic and cubic.

Q. 53. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions, a=0.387 nm, b=0.387 nm and c=0.504 nm and α = β = 90° and γ=120° is
(A) cubic
(B) hexagonal
(C) orthorhombic
(D) rhombohedral

Answer

B

Q. 54. In a triclinic crystal
(A) a = b = c, α = b = g ≠ 90°
(B) a ≠ b = c, α = b = g = 90°
(C) a ≠ b ≠ c, α ≠ b ≠ g ≠ 90°
(D) a ≠ b ≠ c, a = g = 90°, b ≠ 90°

Answer

C

Q. 55. An example of orthorhombic crystal system is
(A) SnO2
(B) KNO3
(C) ZnO
(D) K2Cr2O7

Answer

A