MCQs For NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes

Please refer to the MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes with Answers. The following Biotechnology Principles and Processes Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions has been designed based on the latest syllabus and examination pattern for Class 12. Our experts have designed MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers for all chapters in your NCERT Class 12 Biology book.

Biotechnology Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers

See below Biotechnology Principles and Processes Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions, solve the questions and compare your answers with the solutions provided below. 

Question. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
(a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization 

Question. Which of the following are used in gene cloning?
(a) Nucleoids
(b) Lomasomes
(c) Mesosomes
(d) Plasmids 

Question. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of
(a) restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) transcriptase
(d) primase. 

Question. The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering is
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Bacillus
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Clostridium

Question. Which of the following is related to genetic engineering?
(a) Heterosis
(b) Mutation
(c) Plastid
(d) Plasmid 

Question. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(a) template
(b) carrier
(c) transformer
(d) vector. 

Question. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(a) selectable markers
(b) ligases
(c) restriction enzymes
(d) probes

Question. Which of the following organelles is related with genetic engineering?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Plasmids
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Lysosomes

Question. Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.
(a) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(b) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(c) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(d) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

Question. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed   
(a) selectable marker
(b) Ori site
(c) palindromic sequence
(d) recognition site.

Question. Genetic engineering is possible, because     
(a) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNase I
(b) restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
(c) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(d) we can see DNA by electron microscope.

Question. When scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some foreign genes in it, is called
(a) immunization
(b) genetic engineering
(c) tissue culture
(d) biotechnology.

Question. A selectable marker is used to     
(a) help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated
(b) identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(c) select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(d) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme.

Question. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(a) Retrovirus
(b) Ti plasmid
(c) λ phage
(d) pBR322 

Question. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with   
(a) acetocarmine
(b) aniline blue
(c) ethidium bromide
(d) bromophenol blue.

Question. DNA fragments are     
(a) negatively charged
(b) neutral
(c) either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(d) positively charged. 

Question. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of   
(a) acetocarmine in bright blue light
(b) ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(c) acetocarmine in UV radiation
(d) ethidium bromide in infrared radiation.

Question. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme restriction endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) The enzyme recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
(b) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(c) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(d) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.

Question. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using   
(a) EcoRI
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) polymerase III
(d) ligase. 

Question. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(a) SalI
(b) EcoRV
(c) XhoI
(d) HindIII

Question. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(a) Transferable
(b) Single-stranded
(c) Independent replication
(d) Circular structure

Question. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(a) DNase I
(b) RNase
(c) Hind II
(d) Protease

Question. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as   
(a) vector
(b) plasmid
(c) structural gene
(d) selectable marker.

Question. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid
(d) Cosmid 

Question. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
(a) T – DNA
(b) BAC and YAC
(c) expression vectors
(d) T/A cloning vectors.

Question. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of
(a) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(b) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(c) non-recombinant bacteria containing beta galactosidase
(d) insertional inactivation of alpha galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria. 

Question. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
(a) electrophoresis
(b) restriction mapping
(c) centrifugation
(d) polymerase chain reaction.

Question. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?   
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(b) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(c) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves. 

Question. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(a) silver or platinum
(b) platinum or zinc
(c) silicon or platinum
(d) gold or tungsten

Question. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(a) disarming pathogen vectors
(b) transformation of plant cells
(c) constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
(d) DNA fingerprinting. 

Question. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
(a) as selectable markers
(b) to select healthy vectors
(c) as sequences from where replication starts
(d) to keep the cultures free of infection.

Question. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?
(a) colon
(b) coelom
(c) coenzyme
(d) coli 

Question. Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in
(a) spectrophotometry
(b) tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) gel electrophoresis.

Question. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(a) Baculovirus
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Rhizopus nigricans
(d) Retrovirus

Question. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(a) vector
(b) probe
(c) clone
(d) plasmid. 

Question. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule.

Question. Polyethylene glycol method is used for
(a) biodiesel production
(b) seedless fruit production
(c) energy production from sewage
(d) gene transfer without a vector. 

Question. The introduction of T-DNA into plants involves
(a) exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(b) allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(c) infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) altering the pH of the soil, then heat-shocking the plants.

Question. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(a) vector
(b) selectable marker
(c) plasmid
(d) probe. 

Question. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
(a) Meloidogyne incognita
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Penicillium expansum
(d) Trichoderma harzianum 

Question. Restriction endonuclease         
(a) synthesizes DNA
(b) cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(c) cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(d) restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus.

Question. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are       
(a) crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
(b) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(d) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.

Question. Restriction endonucleases     
(a) are present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cell dies
(b) are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules
(c) are used for in vitro DNA synthesis
(d) are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism. 

Question. The Ti plasmid, is often used for making transgenic plants. The plasmid is found in
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Yeast as a 2 mm plasmid.

Question. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(a) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(b) isolation of DNA molecules
(c) cutting of DNA into fragments
(d) separation of DNA fragments according to their size. 

Question. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with       
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) exonucleases
(c) DNA ligase
(d) endonucleases.

Question. Which of the following enzymes are used to join bits of DNA? 
(a) Ligase
(b) Primase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Endonuclease

Question. A mutant strain of T4 – Bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R-IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the possible reason?   
(a) Bacteriophage transforms in wild.
(b) It is not mutated.
(c) Both strains have similar cistrons.
(d) Both strains have different cistrons.

Question. Which of the following cut the DNA from specific places? 
(a) E.coli restriction endonuclease I
(b) Ligase
(c) Exonuclease
(d) Alkaline phosphate 

Question. Maximum number of bases in plasmids discovered so far 
(a) 50 kilo base
(b) 500 kilo base
(c) 5000 kilo base
(d) 5 kilo base.

Question. A biotechnologist wanted to create a colony of E.coli possessing the plasmid pBR322,sensitive to Tetracycline. Which one of the following restriction sites would he use to ligate a foreign DNA?
(A) Sal I
(B) Pvu I
(C) EcoRI
(D) Hind III

Question. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for.
(A) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in culture vessel
(B) Purification of product
(C) Addition of preservatives to product
(D) Availability of oxygen throughout process.

Question. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to
(A) cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme.
(B) cutting of DNA at specific position only.
(C) prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
(D) All of the above. 

Question. Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of PCR technique?
(A) Herbert Boyer
(B) Hargovind Khurana
(C) Kary Mullis
(D) Arthur Kornberg

Question. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of
(A) Competent cells
(B) Transformed cells
(C) Recombinant cells
(D) None of the above

Question. Name the enzymes ‘P’ and ‘Q’ that are involved in the processes given below. (Image 95)
(A) Enzyme P-Exonuclease and Enzyme QPermease.
(B) Enzyme P- Exonuclease and Enzyme QLigase.
(C) Enzyme P-Endonuclease and Enzyme QPermease.
(D) Enzyme P-Restriction endonuclease and Enzyme Q- Ligase. 

Question. Which of the following should be choosen for best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?
(A) Laboratory flask of largest capacity.
(B) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and outlets.
(C) A continuous culture system.
(D) Any of the above.

Question. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate (A) Binding of DNA to the cell wall.
(B) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins.
(C) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall.
(D) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene.

Question. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(A) Denaturation of template DNA.
(B) Annealing of primers to template DNA.
(C) Extension of primer end on the template DNA.
(D) All of the above. 

Question. Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
(A) Haemophilus influenzae
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Bacillus amyloli 

Question. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
(A) endonuclease
(B) exonuclease
(C) DNA ligase.
(D) Hind – II. 

Question. Which of the following statements does not nhold true for restriction enzyme?
(A) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide seq-uence.
(B) It is an endonuclease.
(C) It is isolated from viruses.
(D) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA Molecules. 

Question. The correct order of step in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is :
(A) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(B) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(C) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(D) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation. 

Question. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(A) The larger the fragment size, farther it moves.
(B) The smaller the fragment size, farther it moves.
(C) Positively charged fragment move to farther end.
(D) Negatively charged fragment do not move. 

Question. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :
(A) Upstream processing
(B) Downstream processing
(C) Bio processing
(D) Post production processing. 

Directions : In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Assertion and Reason Based MCQs

Question. Assertion (A) : Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
Reason (R) : Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with restriction enzyme.
Answer : (B)

Question. Assertion (A) : E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamH I site cannot grow in medium containing tetracycline.
Reason(R) : Recognition site for BamH I is present in tetR region of pBR322.
Answer : (A)

Question. Assertion (A) : Any fragment of DNA, when linked to the ori region, can be initiated to replicate.
Reason (R) : Ori is a genetic sequence that acts as the initiation site for replication of DNA.
Answer : (A)

Question. Assertion (A) : A primer is a small segment of DNA that binds to a complementary strand of DNA.
Reason(R) : Primers are necessary to stop the functioning of DNA polymerase enzyme and, therefore, are necessary in polymerase chain reaction.
Answer : (C)

Question. Assertion (A) : Thermus aquaticus, is used in PCR technique.
Reason (R) : It is a heat-stable DNA polymerase.
Answer : (A)