MCQs For NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

MCQs Class 12

Please refer to the MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers. The following Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions has been designed based on the latest syllabus and examination pattern for Class 12. Our experts have designed MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers for all chapters in your NCERT Class 12 Biology book.

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers

See below Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions, solve the questions and compare your answers with the solutions provided below.

Question. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing fetus by amniocentesis?                     
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Jaundice
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Sex of the fetus 

Answer

B

Question. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for                   
(a) detecting sex of the unborn fetus
(b) artificial insemination
(c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
(d) detecting any genetic abnormality.

Answer

D

Question. Fetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for                         
(a) chiasmata
(b) kinetochore
(c) barr bodies
(d) autosomes.

Answer

C

Question. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statements is incorrect?                     
(a) It can be used for detection of Down’s syndrome.
(b) It can be used for detection of cleft palate.
(c) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(d) It is used for prenatal sex determination.

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone ?                   
(a) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
(b) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(c) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(d) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptive

Answer

B

Question. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.                             
(a) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(b) Vaults, LNG-20
(c) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(d) Progestasert, LNG-20 

Answer

D

Question. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs is                   
(a) they inhibit gametogenesis
(b) they make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) they inhibit ovulation
(d) they suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms. 

Answer

D

Question. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?               
(a) LNG-20
(b) Multiload 375
(c) Lippes Loop
(d) Cu7

Answer

A

Question. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?             
(a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(b) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(d) Irreversible sterility

Answer

B

Question. Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which             
(a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
(b) ovaries are removed surgically
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(d) uterus is removed surgically. 

Answer

A

Question. Which of the following is a correct statement?                       
(a) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
(b) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
(c) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
(d) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

Answer

C

Question. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’                           
(a) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted
(b) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females
(c) is an IUD
(d) is a post-coital contraceptive.

Answer

A

Question. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?         
(a) Multiload 375
(b) LNG – 20
(c) Cervical cap
(d) Vault 

Answer

B

Question. One of the following is not a method of contraception. Which one?     
(a) Condoms
(b) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(c) Lippes Loop
(d) Tubectomy

Answer

B

Question. What is the work of copper-T?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(d) To inhibit gametogenesis 

Answer

B,C

Question. What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills?     
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To check oogenesis
(c) To check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
(d) To check sexual behaviour 

Answer

A

Question. Tablets to prevent male contraception contain     
(a) progesterone
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) both (b) and (c).

Answer

D

Question. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is       
(a) thyroxine
(b) luteinising hormone
(c) progesterone
(d) growth hormone.

Answer

C

Question. The present population of the world is about         
(a) 15 trillion
(b) 6 billion
(c) 500 million
(d) 100 million

Answer

B

Question. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present?     
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)

Answer

D

Question. Cu ions released from copper-releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs)     
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppress sperm motility
(d) prevent ovulation.

Answer

C

Question. One of the legal methods of birth control is
(a) by having coitus at the time of day break
(b) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(c) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(d) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle. 

Answer

C

Question. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(a) Eight weeks
(b) Twelve weeks
(c) Eighteen weeks
(d) Six weeks

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
(a) Chlamydiasis
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Genital warts
(d) Genital herpes

Answer

D

Question. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option.
 Column I              Column II
A. Gonorrhoea       (i) HIV
B. Syphilis             (ii) Neisseria
C. Genital warts     (iii) Treponema
D. AIDS                 (iv) Human papilloma virus
      A    B    C   D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 

Answer

D

Question. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
(a) Trichomoniasis
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

Answer

B

Question. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
(a) A person may contract syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease.
(b) Haemophilia is one of the STDs.
(c) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STDs.
(d) The chances of a 5-years boy contracting a STD are very little.

Answer

D

Question. Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Answer

A

Question. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter.
(1) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
(2) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(3) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives.
(4) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 3
(b) 1, 2
(c) 2, 3
(d) 3, 4

Answer

A

Question. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.
(a) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(b) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(c) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(d) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis 

Answer

A

Question. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(a) ZIFT and IUT
(b) GIFT and ZIFT
(c) ICSI and ZIFT
(d) GIFT and ICSI

Answer

A

Question. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
(a) Gamete Intracytoplasmic Fallopian Transfer
(b) Artificial Insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Intrauterine transfer 

Answer

B,C

Question. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into
(a) uterus
(b) fallopian tube
(c) fimbriae
(d) cervix.

Answer

A

Question. Artificial Insemination means
(a) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(b) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(c) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
(d) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova. 

Answer

A

Question. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilisation of ovum in the laboratory is
(a) embryo at 4 blastomeres stage
(b) embryo at 2 blastomeres stage
(c) morula
(d) zygote. 

Answer

C

Question. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?
(a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

Answer

D

Question. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
(b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus
(c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
(d) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation. 

Answer

A

Question. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only 

Answer

B

Question. Test tube baby means a baby born when   
(a) it is developed in a test tube
(b) it is developed through tissue culture method
(c) the ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(d) it develops from a non-fertilised uterus. 

Answer

C

Question. The test utbe baby means
(a) fertilisation and development both in uterus
(b) fertilisation in vitro and then transplantation in uterus
(c) a baby grown in test tube
(d) fertilised and developed embryo in test tube. 

Answer

B

Question. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is
(a) Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer
(b) Germ cell Internal Fallopian Transfer
(c) Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
(d) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.

Answer

D

Question. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube. 

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
(a) Fertilisation of the egg is effected outside the body; the fertilised egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is completed.
(b) Fertilisation of the egg is effected in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a large test tube.
(c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator.
(d) Fertilisation of the egg and growth of the embryo are affected in a large test tube

Answer

A

Question. According to which of the following organization “reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction”?
(a) WHL
(b) UNESCO
(c) WHO
(d) WWW

Answer

C

Question. Which one amongst the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as social goal?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) USA

Answer

B

Question. The family planning programmes in India were initiated in
(a) 1951
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1981

Answer

A

Question. RCH stands for
(a) Routine Check-up of Health
(b) Reproduction Cum Hygiene
(c) Reversible Contraceptive Hazards
(d) Reproductive and Child Health Care

Answer

D

Question. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is called as           
(a) leproscopy
(b) amniocentesis
(c) endoscopy
(d) ultrasound

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following is traditional method of contraception?               
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhoea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilization

Answer

B

Question. Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ?               
(a) Diaphragms
(b) Spermicidal foams
(c) Condoms
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Answer

C

Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions

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