MCQs For NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Diseases

Please refer to the MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Diseases with Answers. The following Human Health and Diseases Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions has been designed based on the latest syllabus and examination pattern for Class 12. Our experts have designed MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers for all chapters in your NCERT Class 12 Biology book.

Human Health and Diseases Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers

See below Human Health and Diseases Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions, solve the questions and compare your answers with the solutions provided below.

Question. Vaccines generate which type of cell in body
(a) Naive B cells
(b) Naive T cells
(c) Memory B and T cells
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question. In case of snake bite preformed antibodies against snake venom is given to the patients, this type of immunization is called
(a) Antitoxin immunization
(b) Active immunization
(c) Passive immunization
(d) None of these

Question. Hepatitis B vaccine has been produced using recombinant DNA technology from
(a) E.coli
(b) Human
(c) Mice
(d) Yeast

Question. The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment is called
(a) Immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Innate immunity
(d) Allergy

Question. Which of the following is an allergen?
A. Pollens
B. Dust
C. Mites in dust
D. Animal dander
Options :
(a) A, B,D
(b) A,C,D
(c) B,C,D
(d) All of these

Question. During allergy which chemicals are released in the body
(a) Histamine
(b) Serotonin
(c) Melatonin
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question. Oxygen carrier or the respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is :
(a) Haemocyanin
(b) Cytochrome
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) None of these

Question. Anaerobic respiration is likely to occur in :
(a) Ants
(b) Earthworms
(c) Echinoderms
(d) Tapeworms

Question. Controlling centre of normal breathing in mammals lies in :
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Midbrain
(d) Medulla oblongata

Question. Oxygen carrier or the respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is:
(a) Haemocyanin
(b) Cytochrome
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) None of these

Question. On high mountains, difficulty in breathing is due to 
(a) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen
(b) Decrease in amount of oxygen
(c) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration
(d) All of the above

Question. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude :
(a) people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
(b) atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive
(c) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production.
(d) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed.

Question. Which one of the following statements is incorrect 
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly decrease the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(b) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(c) In insects, curculating body fluids serve to distritute oxygen to tissue
(d) The principle of contercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes

Question. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to
(a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(c) low temperature
(d) hot and humid environment.

Question. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(b) Total lungs capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(d) Total lungs capacity minus residual volume

Question. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(b) total lung capacity minus residual volume
(c) inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(d) total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume.

Question. During inspiration, the diaphragm 
(a) Expands
(b) Shows no change
(c) Contracts and flattens
(d) Relaxes to become dome-shaped

Question. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and Fallopian tubes is
(a) glandular
(b) ciliated
(c) squamous
(d) cuboidal

Question. What is true about RBCs in humans?
(a) They carry about 20-25 per cent of carbon dioxide
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of oxygen
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
(d) They do not carry carbon dioxide at all

Question. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort? 
(a) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(b) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth.
(c) One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.
(d) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them

Question. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO₂) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
(a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(b) Free CO₂ in blood plasma
(c) 70% carbamino- haemogolobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(d) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

Question. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in human
(a) Cigarette smoking may lead of inflammation of bronchi
(b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
(c) Workers in grinding and stone – breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
(d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO₂) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin

Question. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that : 
(a) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease.
(b) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine.
(c) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae.
(d) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

Question. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohatang Pass about six months back :
(a) have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O₂.
(b) are not physically fit to play games like football.
(c) suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(d) have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinuty to O₂.

Question. Asthma is caused due to : 
(a) Infection of lungs
(b) Spasm in bronchial muscles
(c) Bleeding into pleural cavity
(d) Infection of trachea

Question. In which condition, oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin shift to right of normal curve?
(a) decrease in pH
(b) decrease in CO₂ concentration 
(c) decrease in acidity
(d) decrease in temperature

Question. In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to respiratory surface by : 
(a) Red blood corpuscles only
(b) RBCs and WBCs
(c) Plasma and RBCs
(d) Plasma only

Question. Due to genetic or unknown reasons the body attacks self-cells, resulting in the damage of the body, this is called
(a) Acquired immunity
(b) Active immunity
(c) Passive immunity
(d) None of these

Question. Organ where maturation and proliferation of T-lymphocytes take place is known as
(a) Liver
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Thymus
(d) Appendix

Question. Which of the following is true for thymus?
(a) Increase in size with age
(b) Size remains constant with age
(c) Decreases in size with age
(d) Decreases and disappear with age

Question. Function of secondary lymphoid organ is to
(a) Origin of lymphocytes
(b) Maturation of lymphocytes
(c) Provide site for lymphocyte and antigen interaction
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question. Which of the following statement is true for immunity?
A. The body Is able to defend itself from foreign agents
B. This overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organism is conferred by the immune system is called immunity
C. Innate immunity is specific type of defense
D. Innate immunity is not specific type of defense
Options :
(a) A,B,C arc true
(b) All are true
(c) A,B,D are true
(d) B,C,D are true

Question. Which of the following does not come under physiological barrier of innate immunity?
(a) Acid in stomach
(b) Tears in eyes
(c) White blood cells
(d) Saliva in mouth

Question. Virus infected cells secrete which protein
(a) Antibody
(b) Antigen
(c) Interferon
(d) Complement factor

Question. Antibodies are produced by
(a) T lymphocytes
(b) B lymphocytes
(c) Eosinophils
(d) None of these

Question. Antibodies are
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Lipid
(c) Protein
(d) Polymer of glucose

Question. Cell mediated immunity is elicited by
(a) B lymphocytes
(b) Neutrophils
(c) T lymphocytes
(d) None of these

Question. Which tests is/are important before graft/transplant?
(a) Tissue matching
(b) Blood matching
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Question. Which type of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) When a host is exposed to antigen, antibodies are produced in the host body.
(b) Active immunity is fast and give its full effective response
(c) Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunization induce active immunity
(d) When ready made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity

Question. Mother’s milk contains which antibody
(a) IgG
(b) IgM
(c) IgE
(d) IgA

Question. Antibody provided to child by mother’s milk and during pregnancy are the examples of
(a) Active and passive immunity respectively
(b) Passive and active immunity respectively
(c) Passive immunity
(d) Active immunity

Question. Which of the following endocrine glands is often referred in relation with AIDS?
(a) Thyroid
(b) adrenal
(c) Thymus
(d) Pancreas

Question. Which of the following non-infectious disease is a major cause of death in human beings?
(a) AIDS
(b) Cirrhosis
(c) Cancer
(d) Asthma

Question. Metastasis is
(a) part of regeneration.
(b) transfer of cancer cells from one part of the body to another.
(c) fast mitosis in cancer cells
(d) all of the above

Question. The use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of
(a) fungal disease
(b) viral disease
(c) allergy
(d) helminthes disease

Question. LSD is obtained from
(a) Cannabis sativus
(b) Erythroxylon cocca
(c) Claviceps purpurea
(d) Papaver somniferum

Question. Which of the following are hallucinogens ?
(a) Charas
(b) Bhang
(c) Ganja
(d) All of these

Question. Cyclosporin is used as is
(a) allergic eczema
(b) immunosuppressant
(c) prophylactic for viruses
(d) prophylactic for marasmus

Question. From which part of Atropa belladonna is the drug’belladona’ obtained?
(a) Stems
(b) Flowers
(c) Leaves
(d) Dried leaves and roots

Question. Hashish and charas are obtained from
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina
(b) Cannabis sativus
(c) Papaver somniferum
(d) Claviceps purpurea

Question. Ergot, a drug is derived from fungus
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Phytopthora
(c) Clavicep
(d) Perenospora

Question. Atropine, an alkaloid, is obtained from
(a) Datura anaroxia
(b) Atropa belladonna
(c) Hyocyamus niger
(d) Withania somnifera

Question. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?
(a) Cholera and tetanus
(b) Typhoid and smallpox
(c) Tetanus and mumps
(d) Herpes and influenza

Question. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?     
(a) Babesiosis
(b) Blastomycosis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Influenza

Question. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon       
(a) food in intestine
(b) blood only
(c) erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon
(d) mucosa and submucosa of colon only.

Question. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is     
(a) Trophozoites
(b) Sporozoites
(c) Female gametocytes
(d) Male gametocytes

Question. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels? 
(a) Elephantiasis
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Ringworm disease
(d) Amoebiasis

Question. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by       
(a) Tse-tse fly
(b) mosquito bite
(c) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
(d) eating imperfectly cooked pork.

Question. Widal test is carried out to test                     
(a) malaria
(b) diabetes mellitus
(c) HIV/AIDS
(d) typhoid fever.

Question. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?                 
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(b) Red blood corpuscles of human suffering from malaria
(c) Spleen of infected humans
(d) Salivary glands of freshy moulted female Anopheles mosquito

Question. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is                       
(a) caused by a virus
(b) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(c) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
(d) not an infectious disease. 

Question. Ringworm in humans is caused by                                     
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) nematodes
(d) viruses. 

Question. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found in human body.             
(a) Muscles of the legs
(b) Blood vessels of the thigh region
(c) Skin between the fingers
(d) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs

Question. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in               
(a) gut of female Anopheles
(b) salivary glands of Anopheles
(c) human RBCs
(d) human liver. 

Question. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?                                               
(a) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
(b) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
(c) Aedes aegypti – Dengue fever
(d) Anopheles culicifacies – Leishmaniasis 

Question. Salmonella is related with                                     
(a) typhoid
(b) polio
(c) T.B.
(d) tetanus. 

Question. Which is the most infectious disease?                               
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) AIDS
(c) Amoebiasis
(d) Malaria 

Question. Which is showing accurate pairing?                                               
(a) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
(b) AIDS – Bacillus conjugalis
(c) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani
(d) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae 

Question. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of                                             
(a) malaria
(b) pneumonia
(c) tuberculosis
(d) typhoid.

Question. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?                                                         
(a) Common cold, AIDS
(b) Dysentery, common cold
(c) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(d) Ringworm, AIDS

Question. Typhoid fever is caused by                                                           
(a) Shigella
(b) Escherichia
(c) Giardia
(d) Salmonella.

Question. Diphtheria is caused by                                                             
(a) nematodes
(b) bacteria
(c) virus
(d) none of these. 

Question. Which of the following diseases is now considered completely eradicated from India?            (a) Small pox
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Plague
(d) Kala-azar

Question. Which of the following symptoms indicate red sickness?                                               
(a) Nausea and loss of hair
(b) Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair
(c) Red and ulcerated skin
(d) Nausea and anaemia 

Question. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?                                                     
(a) Rabies, mumps
(b) Cholera, tuberculosis
(c) Typhoid, tetanus
(d) AIDS, syphilis 

Question. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera because                             
(a) Na⁺ prevents water loss from body
(b) NaCl function as regulatory material
(c) NaCl produces energy
(d) NaCl is antibacterial.

Question. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects the                                     
(a) lymph gland
(b) central nervous system
(c) spleen
(d) intestine.

Question. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?                                     
(a) Syphilis – Trichuris trichiura
(b) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) Dengue fever – Arbovirus
(d) Plague – Yersinia pestis 

Question. Schizont stage of Plasmodium occurs in human                                                     
(a) erythrocytes
(b) liver cells
(c) erythrocytes and liver cells
(d) erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells. 

Question. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to be destroyed is                                               
(a) Leishmania
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Ascaris
(d) Plasmodium. 

Question. Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease.                                                   
(a) Anopheles – Malaria
(b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness
(c) Glossina – Kala-azar
(d) Wuchereria – Filariasis

Question. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is             
(a) sexual cycle
(b) pre-erythrocytic schizogony
(c) exoerythrocytic schizogony
(d) post-erythrocytic schizogony. 

Question. Which of the following causes plague?                                             
(a) Trichinella spiralis
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Yersinia pestis
(d) Leishmania donovani

Question. Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis 

Question. Who discovered Plasmodium in RBC of human beings?                                                               
(a) Ronald Ross
(b) Mendel
(c) Laveran
(d) Stephens 

Question. The infective stage of malarial parasite, Plasmodium that enters human body is                                           
(a) merozoite
(b) sporozoite
(c) trophozoite
(d) minuta form.

Question. A bite of tse-tse fly may pass to humans                                                               
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
(d) Plasmodium vivax.

Question. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of                                                         
(a) cryptomerozoties
(b) metacryptomerozoites
(c) merozoites
(d) trophozoites. 

Question. The vector for sleeping sickness is                                             
(a) housefly
(b) tse-tse fly
(c) sandfly
(d) fruit fly.

Question. African sleeping sickness is due to                                                             
(a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by tse-tse fly
(b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by bed bug
(c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
(d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by housefly. 

Question. Malignant tertian malarial parasite, belongs to class                                                                                 
(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(b) P. vivax
(c) P. ovale
(d) P. malariae. 

Question. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is                                     
(a) Trypanosoma cruzi
(b) T. rhodesiense
(c) T. tangela
(d) T. gambiense

Question. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it contains                           
(a) immunoglobulin A
(b) natural killer cells
(c) monocytes |
(d) macrophages.

Question. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?                                                     
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Alzheimer’s disease
(d) Vitiligo

Question. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?                           
(a) Cell-mediated immune response
(b) Hormonal immune response
(c) Physiological immune response
(d) Autoimmune response

Question. MALT constitutes about percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.                                           
(a) 20%
(b) 70%
(c) 10%
(d) 50%

Question. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.                                                 
(a) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(b) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(c) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(d) Fetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity

Question. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?                                 
(a) Cell-mediated immune response
(b) Auto-immune response
(c) Humoral immune response
(d) Inflammatory immune response 

Question. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain                                       
(a) gamma globulin
(b) attenuated pathogens
(c) activated pathogens
(d) harvested antibodies.

Question. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks selfcells, then it leads to                               
(a) autoimmune disease
(b) active immunity
(c) allergic response
(d) graft rejection

Question. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to                                         
(a) passive immune response
(b) innate immune response
(c) humoral immune response
(d) cell-mediated immune response. 

Question. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to                                                 
(a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
(c) low temperature
(d) hot and humid environment.